I think you are overselling it's incorrectness and so horseshoeing back around to being like the people who oversell it's truthfulness. Yes, the tragedy of the commons is misleading if taken in isolation, but something being misleading does not automatically make it scientifically incorrect. Do you have direct evidence or an argument for why the tragedy of the commons isn't the most likely outcome if the circumstances just so happen to match the assumptions Hardin made?
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