The Philippines were named after a Spanish king, King Phillip, or Felippe in Spanish. Given that the country was first controlled by the Spanish for ages, then the Americans, I'm guessing that at first the Spanish name for both the people and the territory was used, but when the Americans took over, the English-ified name of the territory was used, while the Spanish name for the people stuck as colonial powers use the name for the territory more often? Perhaps the Filipino diaspora also plays a role in this. I don't know, just my guess.

Phuck if I know.

I had no idea either but I did find this while Googling(Kagi-ing?)

https://grammarphobia.com/blog/2010/04/why-is-filipino-spelled-with-an-f.html

And is pronounced "Pilipino" by most Filipinos. But my Filipino wife, who grew up in South Carolina, had a friend who said "Flippin-o". So that's what we say now, lol.

How did this question never occur to me before? Now i need to know the answer too

it was an Spanish colony for 300 years, Filipino is the Spanish spelling, and probably stuck, in English would have been "Philippine"

English, misspelling and never admitting mistakes go hand in hand.

Why is Kansas, "cansus", while Arkansas is "R-cansaw"?

Lol

Guangzhou is spelled with the Pinyin

But the local language is not called "Guangzhouese", its Cantonese, but the city is not called "Canton"

lmao

Also: Petition to rename my city to "Filadelfia" 🤭

Hey Filipino here - i honestly don't know the answer (or maybe I'm too old to remember my history class) but as per Wikipedia

The name Filipino, as a demonym, was derived from the term las Islas Filipinas 'the Philippine Islands', the name given to the archipelago in 1543 by the Spanish explorer and Dominican priest Ruy López de Villalobos, in honor of Philip II of Spain.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Filipinos

Two things: Competing colonial interests and the orthographic differences between Spanish and English

The Spanish Empire took control of the Philippines and named the named the islands Las Islas Filipinas or just Las Filipinas which is still today used in Spanish to this day. It was named for the Spanish king at the time of the conquest: Rey Felipe II. Why the change from FE-lipe to FI-lipinas? I don't know.

Towards the end of the 1800s, The Spanish Empire is crumbling and their last remaining territories (Cuba, Puerto Rico, Guam and Las Filipinas) is taken by the USA. The US changes the name to the English-inflected The Philippines because English for, some reason, uses to two "F" sounds: "F" and "PH." Spanish only has one: "F."

Because the English language is rife with tradition that makes the language intentionally more complicated.

I have postulated for years that you can just get rid of ph from the language entirely and it will make absolutely no difference in how we say the words.

My issue with gif and graphical

Probably something to do with Tagalog vs English, and the English named the Philippines