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[–] 11 points 4 months ago* (11 children)

The money comes from the customer in either scenario, functionally there is no difference it flows from customer to employee regardless.

Edit: just to be clear, I am very much against the tipping culture in the US as it only benefits the employer and leaves employees at the whim of the customers mood. But all employee salaries are paid by the customers money in the end.

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  • [–] 23 points 4 months ago (10 children)

    Yeah, but that's not what subsidized means at all.

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  • [–] 5 points 4 months ago* (8 children)

    No the definition is technically to be partially financially supported by public funds (I.e. government or other organization)...but that wouldn't cover tipping from private customers either so...

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  • [–] -2 points 4 months ago (7 children)

    No, you're just wrong here and there is no technically.

    You're misunderstanding what public funds are.

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  • [–] 8 points 4 months ago (5 children)

    You you're suggesting that money spent by private customers counts as "public funds", you're misunderstanding what public funds are.

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  • [–] 3 points 4 months ago*

    i don't think there's a misunderstanding dude. i think you're talking past each other because you used hyperbole. you both seem to be making the same point in different words, like you got different educations and degrees or something normal like that

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