I think I see the problem now. You're confusing a moral principle you personally endorse with a conclusion that necessarily follows from logic.
Your entire philosophy appears to depend on three claims:
- Nobody wants their own will violated.
- Nobody's will has objectively greater value than anyone else's.
- Therefore, nobody should violate another person's will.
Except 3 does not logically follow from 1 and 2.
I can acknowledge that you don't want your will violated, acknowledge that your will has no objectively demonstrable superiority over mine, and still decide to violate it.
You can call that immoral. You can call me selfish. But you cannot call it logically contradictory without introducing an additional moral premise establishing that I ought to respect your will.
You're attempting to derive an "ought" from an "is," and you've simply skipped the step where you're supposed to justify it.
But your theory of property rights gets even more interesting.
You claim that ownership requires two things: wanting exclusive authority over something and not violating anyone else's will to obtain it. You then assert that whichever claim existed first takes precedence.
Okay. Let's test that.
I hereby declare my desire for exclusive authority over the entire surface of Mars.
I've violated nobody's will in making this declaration, and my desire predates the desires of any future Martian settlers.
By your stated criteria, I've satisfied both requirements for ownership.
When the first settlers arrive, are they violating my will by occupying my property?
If not, why not?
What additional requirement have I failed to satisfy, and more importantly, where did you logically derive that requirement from your original premises?
Because this illustrates the fundamental problem with your "logical order of operations."
Something happening first doesn't establish that it has moral authority over something happening later. That's an additional normative rule you've introduced without justification.
You keep using examples of murder, rape, and theft because those are cases where your conclusions conveniently align with moral intuitions most people already share.
But demonstrating that your framework agrees with conventional morality in obvious cases doesn't prove your framework is logically necessary. It doesn't even establish that your principles work consistently in less obvious cases.
And the funniest part is your insistence that I "already agree" with your philosophy because I supposedly have no logical choice.
No. I can agree with your conclusions about murder, theft, and consent without accepting your reasoning for arriving at them.
That's not a contradiction. It's an elementary distinction between the validity of an argument and the truth of its conclusion.
So here's what I'd genuinely like you to demonstrate:
Can you derive your principle of nonaggression, and your rule that earlier desires establish property rights, using only your two original premises, without introducing any additional moral assumptions?
Because until you can, you haven't demonstrated that morality is objectively dictated by logic.
You've described your preferred moral framework, assumed its foundational rules are true, and then mistaken the resulting consistency for proof.
That's not a logical derivation. It's circular justification with extra