(1) It is unlikely that 90% of the human population lived in extreme poverty prior to the 19th century. Historically, unskilled urban labourers in all regions tended to have wages high enough to support a family of four above the poverty line by working 250 days or 12 months a year, except during periods of severe social dislocation, such as famines, wars, and institutionalized dispossession – particularly under colonialism
This is utterly insane and against every serious study of premodern economics I'm aware of.
Capitalism directly causes poverty, and the starvation of at least 9 million people worldwide per year.
Considering that most deaths by starvation and malnutrition are in areas where capitalism is weak to begin with...?