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[–] 1 point 7 months ago (3 children)
  • [–] 1 point 7 months ago (1 child)

    Usually, yes, but where coffee is concerned (labeling on coffee makers, for example) a "cup" is traditionally 3/4 of that.

    So it's ambiguous if they don't specify further. (Do they? The link isn't loading for me.)

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  • [–] 2 points 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago)

    236ml in the US because it makes no sense.

    No, they only surveyed using the word "cup" , another typical shit epidemiology study.

    People use caffeine to self medicate, cause and effect are therefore impossible to determine.

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