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[–] 149 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago) (24 children)

Sabes cómo se llama uno que habla tres idiomas? Trilingüe.

Sabes cómo se llama uno que habla dos? Bilingüe.

Sabes como se llama uno que habla un sólo idioma? Americano. Se llama americano.

This fucking moron made himself the punchline of the joke that we invented to mock those like him.

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  • [–] 8 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago) (18 children)

    Why is there a ü in the answers?

    Edit: Thanks for explaining everyone. I have no idea how I missed that my whole life. I had no idea. It could be because I'm in Western Hemisphere but not sure.

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  • [–] 38 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago) (9 children)

    Because that's how it's spelled.

    Spanish uses ü, although relatively rarely. It signifies that you should pronounce the u and not merge it into nearby vowels.

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  • [–] 10 points 8 months ago (6 children)

    English does the same with most vowels, it's called diaeresis though the only place I commonly see it is in the New Yorker (funnily enough googling what it is called led me to a New Yorker article about it.

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  • [–] 14 points 8 months ago (3 children)

    I mean at this point it seems that English doesn't do this, but maybe at one point it saw limited use.

    Except "naïve", that still happens. But English is nothing if not wildly inconsistent.

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  • [–] 12 points 8 months ago

    Fair enough point, I also see it in normal English usage for proper nouns but basically nowhere else.

    Wikipedia agrees with you (and also calls out the New Yorker vehemently disagrees which I find oddly comforting and hilarious)

    In British English this usage has been considered obsolete for many years, and in US English, although it persisted for longer, it is now considered archaic as well.[3] Nevertheless, it is still used by the US magazine The New Yorker.[4]

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  • [–] 9 points 8 months ago (1 child)

    @bdonvr@thelemmy.club explained it very well in their comment. To add, in Spanish, the letter "g" when followed by either an "i" or an "e" will be pronounced in three different ways depending on whether you add an "u" in between, and if that "u" has a diaeresis on it. If you add the dieresis, it means you have to pronounce the "u". Think of "pingüino" (penguin in english). In order to say the "u" in the word, we add the diaeresis that says the reader that they have to say the "u". In Spanish, "guillotina", "pingüino" and "ginebra" you will read the sillabe with a "g" and an "i" differently on each of those words.

    Spanish has tons of grammar rules. It's hard to learn them all, but when you do, it makes extremely easy to know how to say a word when you read it. Even where to put the accent (even if there is no tilde in the word).

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  • [–] 1 point 8 months ago

    Spanish orthography (which is not really grammar) is still very simple and logical compared to the mess we have in English, where spelling was largely frozen before the Great Vowel Shift happened. It was a perfectly decent West Germanic language until Norman French forced itself onto Anglo-Saxon and left us with a weird mish-mash of Germanic and Romance features.

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  • [–] 6 points 8 months ago* (2 children)

    Because that changes how it is pronounced

    Let's say- Penguin

    In spanish it is Pingüino

    "Pingüino" is pronounced "pinguino" ("gui" just like in english)

    While "pinguino" would be something like "pingeeno"

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  • [–] 1 point 8 months ago

    i don't speak/read/write Spanish..... i do speak two other languages that are not English, and i am not a fucking idiot, therefore, i can read text in a foreign language, and still get the joke.

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