Fucking hell are you ever reaching for relevance. You don't know what any of the terms your using mean, where they come from, or how they used across different applications. MORALITY extends from MORES at a societal scale through codifying expected behaviour as moral right. The most basic definition of MORES explicitly references societal societal MORALS. https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/mores As MORES are first described by Sumner, they are explicitly described as societal cultural practices through which a society's MORALS are codifed customs. While I could pull many excerpts from his writings that substantiate this readily here's one such quote: "The case is somewhat different when attempts are made by positive efforts to prevent the operation of bad mores, or to abolish them. The historians have familiarized us with the notion of corrupt or degenerate mores. Such periods as the later Roman empire, the Byzantine empire, the Merovingian kingdom, and the Renaissance offer us examples of evil mores. We need to give more exactitude to this idea. Bad mores are those which are not well fitted to the conditions and needs of the society at the time. But, as we have seen, the mores produce a philosophy of welfare, more or less complete, and they produce taboos which are concentrated inhibitions directed against conduct which the philosophy regards as harmful, or positive injunctions to do what is judged expedient and beneficial. The taboos constitute morality or a moral system which, in higher civilization, restrains passion and appetite, and curbs the will." Looking at the MORALITY of age-gap relationships, we can understand that the MORES of how societal cultural expression and legal apparatus' impact such MORAL considerations.
I guess the entirety of academia must be morons according to you to write entire books and articles about the MORALITY of different political systems. Entire books written about how the MORALITY of governments evolve, change and are re-interpreted based on contemporary understandings.
If mores produce a philosophy of welfare, how exactly do you suggest that morals are somehow separate from society? You seem to think that there is some sort of universal moral code. Did you learn that from your cult leader? Or did you read an excerpt on Kant once and decided that was the only ethical model available?
I suggest you sit down before you embarrass yourself much further.