For me, this cannot work, the results can only be considered good if the intentions were good. If you do something good out of bad intentions, then the result might be objectively good, but I won’t count it as something good from you.
We're bordering on reinventing Kantianism vs Utilitarianism arguments here because there is no objective definition of "good". Each of us subjectively decides what is "good". To illustrate with your position that the intent to do good is the deciding factor, then that would follow that Hitler would be good because his intent was to do "good" as he saw it. Obviously neither one of use would consider Hitler or his actions good.
Here's your statement with the extra dimension of intent we're discussing added:
If you do something good (and good by my standard) out of bad intentions (good by your own standards), then the result might be objectively bad, but I won’t count it as something good from you (because even though your intent was good by your standards your result was bad from my standards).
Doesn't this seems to negate the "intent" element argument returning judgment purely base end result judgment?