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[+] -8 points 1 year ago* (4 children)

when have men ever been systematically oppressed? misandry doesn't mean that, because it doesn't happen.

and what words mean in an acedemic context does matter, because when the academia says one thing and people use it to mean another, it furthers the meabing from reality and science. especially when it's something like this, when what you're using as is just something not grounded in facts.

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  • [–] 11 points 1 year ago (3 children)

    The academic definition does matter in an academic context, but outside of that, other definitions are used. Misandry does exist and is grounded in facts, because people can use misandry to mean bigotry against men. In fact, that is what people mean more often than not. Linguistic is a real science as well, you know?

    Again, being a pedant about what it should mean isn't helping anyone, least of all you.

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