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[–] 11 points 1 year ago (5 children)

It's not so much a misunderstanding of concepts, it's people using 2 different definitions.

You must know by now that misandry can both mean "systemic oppression of men" and "bigotry against men" - sorry, "unfairly being mean to men", just as misogyny or racism can mean different things in a systemic and personal context.

People are complaining about bigotry, or "being meanly treated" if you want to imply dismissiveness, and the word they use for that is misandry/racism/misogyny - that these words imply systemic oppression in an academic context doesn't matter, we are talking about the other context.

And if you think it should not have this other definition at all, because it makes it harder to talk about the more important systemic issue, or for another reason: don't be a pedantic prescriptivist on these definitions, language is fluid.

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  • [+] -8 points 1 year ago* (4 children)

    when have men ever been systematically oppressed? misandry doesn't mean that, because it doesn't happen.

    and what words mean in an acedemic context does matter, because when the academia says one thing and people use it to mean another, it furthers the meabing from reality and science. especially when it's something like this, when what you're using as is just something not grounded in facts.

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  • [–] 11 points 1 year ago (3 children)

    The academic definition does matter in an academic context, but outside of that, other definitions are used. Misandry does exist and is grounded in facts, because people can use misandry to mean bigotry against men. In fact, that is what people mean more often than not. Linguistic is a real science as well, you know?

    Again, being a pedant about what it should mean isn't helping anyone, least of all you.

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