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[–] 1 point 1 year ago (2 children)

Yes, public ownership within a capitalist economy, under a bourgeois state, isn't socialism, I agree. That's not what I said, though. Just like markets in a socialist economy are not capitalism, public ownership in capitalist economies aren't socialism. What ultimately matters is what is principle, not what exists period, otherwise all modes of production are the same as they all contain at minimum trace elements of others.

We've discussed this before, and I agree in that we will likely never agree, but I'll say it again: your analysis of socialism fails because it relies on "one-drop" analysis. Capitalist economies are not defined by the absence of collectivized ownership, but by private ownership and the circulation of capital being principle. Socialism, as the transition between capitalism and communism, is no different in that it too is not defined by purity, but by principle aspects.

This doesn't come from Stalin, but is from Marx, Engels, Lenin, etc. A socialist economy cannot just will the productive forces to levels where public ownership is the most effective, I agree, but I disagree that that means that an underdeveloped country cannot retain ownership of the large firms and key industries, gradually appropriating capital with respect to its development. It's like using fire for heating, keeping it in check by controlling the environment and all inputs, fuel, etc, and gradually replacing it with electrified heating as time goes on and you get the tech for it.

I fundamentally cannot agree with treating socialism itself as some unique mode of production distinct from all previous in defining it by purity and not by the principle aspect.

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  • [+] 1 point 1 year ago (1 child)
  • [–] 1 point 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

    No, this is a ridiculous misreading of my comment, and of Marxism in general. When I say "one drop," I mean of private property, not of capitalism itself. Capitalism is an overarching system, it isn't something you define as a quantum element. I already stated that capitalist systems have public ownership, and that that doesn't mean capitalist systems have socialist elements either.

    Socialist countries are appropriating capital, yes. Public ownership is the principle aspect of their economies as well. You proceed from a false assumption and base your argument on that, but the premise itself is false. Socialism is a mode of production where public, collectivized ownership is the principle aspect of the economy. Simple as that. It isn't the public sector of a capitalist state, nor is it exclusively a system that is fully collectivized.

    Your entire comment is mired in the idealism you accuse me of. I have never once suggested that socialism isn't a mode of production, yet you are here affirming it as something unique, holy even, perfect, ideal, devoid of contradictions, unlike the other modes of production. That's what I meant by it not being unique among modes of production, not that it isn't a mode of production. This concept of socialism being pure when no other mode of production is is the very utopian idealism Marx railed against when correcting Hegel's idealist dialectics. All modes of production contain contradictions, all modes of production contain elements of other modes of production. If you erase dialectics and only look at systems by their purity, you'd find that all modes of production fail to be correctly analyzed, because none are pure.

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