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[–] 42 points 1 year ago (4 children)

Missing something here. How are the feds prosecuting for murder when murder has always been a state charge? In any case, is this not double jeopardy?

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  • [–] 33 points 1 year ago (2 children)

    I think because he fled across state lines. It seems like a stretch to me, but I am not a lawyer.

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  • [–] 10 points 1 year ago (1 child)
  • [–] 12 points 1 year ago*

    Not that much of a stretch. Since a state may refuse to arrest someone who committed a crime in a different state if they are sympathetic to said crime (especially a concern when USA was split between slavery and anti-slavery states), the feds can have jurisdiction in these cases, since otherwise it may involve a dispute between states. It makes at least some sense...

    If you want to see a real stretch (aka completely made up bullshit), look up how feds justify growing marihuana for your own consumption (not sale) somehow involves interstate commerce.

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