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[+] -7 points 5 months ago (10 children)
  • [–] 14 points 5 months ago (1 child)

    you're just be pedantic. The issue isn't about it being "mostly", it's about if its a "men's" thing. A 42/58 isn't that wide of a gap to say that it's one gender's thing. As the difference could likely just be attributed to other cultural factors and not the thing itself.

    If office workers were split 42/58, you wouldn't call it a "man's" job, even if technically there's more men.

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  • [–] 3 points 5 months ago (6 children)
  • [+] -9 points 5 months ago (4 children)

    Yes, anything over half is literally what "mostly" means. Doesn't matter if it's 99% or 51%.

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  • [+] 4 points 5 months ago (3 children)
  • [–] -2 points 5 months ago (2 children)

    What the fuck is your problem? Words have meanings.

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  • [–] 0 points 5 months ago

    That word is covering a lot of ground. Why would you let language be so ambiguous to you? What would you call 75%, and then how can you destinguish between the two if they are both "mostly"?

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