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The vast majority of US legal common sense would indicate “no”, but at the same time, in a functional sense, the answer is actually “idk”, because there is no precedent for the situation that’s ever been ruled on by any court here. And, you know, who fucking knows what the Tribunal of Six will do.

Edit: wait, so most constitutional scholars think this would fly…? That honestly makes me take most constitutional scholars a lot less seriously.

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