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[–] 13 points 9 months ago*

Well, actually, about that.
According to DSM-5, which is basically the thing for diagnostic criteria in the US:

Pedophilic disorder


302.2 (F65.4)


  • A. Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children (generally age 13 years or younger).
  • B. The individual has acted on these sexual urges, or the sexual urges or fantasies cause marked distress or interpersonal difficulty.
  • C. The individual is at least age 16 years and at least 5 years older than the child or children in Criterion A.

Note: Do not include an individual in late adolescence involved in an ongoing sexual relationship with a 12- or 13-year-old.

Specify whether:

  • Exclusive type (attracted only to children)
  • Nonexclusive type

Specify if:

  • Sexually attracted to males
  • Sexually attracted to females
  • Sexually attracted to both

Specify if:

  • Limited to incest

So it does generally include 13.

Edit: Improved formatting (trying to copy the book).

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