Yes it's normal and usually makes sense. In this particular case, however, it distorts the data basis, as the UK GDP is valued higher than the two eurozone countries due to the very high reference exchange rate.
And I said 'you' because you could have chosen other normalizations as well... yielding a different picture.
For example you could normalize by annual % growth of GDP.
https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/NY.GDP.MKTP.KD.ZG?end=2024&locations=GB-DE-FR&start=2007
(Side note: Thanks for the source, this database is amazing!)