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[–] 2 points 3 months ago (4 children)

No one ever even implied that they were.

The obvious answer to your question is "not in frame".

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  • [–] 0 points 3 months ago (3 children)

    There is an implication that Capitalism is what led England to colonize half of the world and enslave people. Logically, if the Romans and Mongols did it as well, then we can no longer attribute this to Capitalism alone.

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  • [–] 2 points 3 months ago (2 children)

    No one is implying exclusivity.

    It is fact that capitalism is a driver of Imperialist expansion. That doesn't mean that other drivers do not also exist.

    Your logic is flawed.

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  • [–] -1 points 3 months ago (1 child)

    If I read "Capitalism and it's (sic) atrocities must be understood by the people", then I'd expect to get an example of something that happens only on Capitalism. Capitalism has countless issues, but I wouldn't put "it enabled empires to do Imperialistic stuff" on this list, is all I'm saying.

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  • [–] 2 points 3 months ago

    Then you need to correct your expectations because they don't make sense. The atrocities of capitalism are atrocities whose cause can be attributed to capitalism being a primary driver of social incentives, that doesn't mean those things can only be caused by capitalism, only that capitalism is a cause.

    "The incentive structure of Capitalism is a primary driver of Imperialist oppression" is at the top of the list when it comes to most systemic analysis from a leftist political perspective.

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